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The place that also takes in a sentence decides what the sentence would mean Using 'too', 'also', 'either', 'neither' in negative sentences ask question asked 3 years, 1 month ago modified 1 year, 7 months ago To further explain, even if words in a sentence do not change, it is the particular place which also occupies in the sentence that the meaning of the sentence gets changed.
I have a question about the usage of 'furthermore', 'moreover', 'in addition to', and 'also' The american who told you that it's fine to me is wrong simply does not understand her own language! Dictionaries give in addition to as the meaning to all of them
But what are the slight differences
The strict logic version could be also a solution for the timespan vs Point in time and presence vs Absence problems described in other posts here Expats also are migrants or expats are also migrants i tried to research it but the answer i found is that depending on context both versions could be correct
Now i'm not sure which one to use In my opinion the first one looks better but i'd like to know for sure. It is grammatical to use in an email and just tells the recipient what you have attached to the email I would prefer enclosure: for a more formal email though
You do not need to put a comma before which because it is one of those necessary phrases that is not a sidenote.
Likewise = in addition = also = moreover refer collins ditionary for the reference furthermore ;) furthermore = in addition = moreover as well is equal to in addition However, though all mean same, which to use when comes through reading, and i'm pretty sure that the more you study, the more you learn about it. We say and also when something is additional, and it is this context where we can switch and also with 'plus' For example, some people may count adults and children separately for specific purposes, and you might hear there are 4 adults, plus 1 child
You could instead say there are 4 adults and also 1 child. He has also been a poet Both are understandable with similar meaning, but would the second, has also been, be considered the equivalent (whatever that would be) of a split infinitive in this situation? It looks like fine to me is absolutely incorrect
Where did you read this sentence
It's fine with me is perfectly correct english, and a common expression It's fine to me is also perfectly good english
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